Firstly, I have read the arguments here.
I have asked this question: Are there any specific examples in Lord of the Rings that are influenced by the WWII? and it was marked as duplicate and I was directed to the answer of How much did Tolkien write about the connection between WWI and his work?.
It is very obvious that my question asks for influences from WWII in LotR, while the question that supposedly holds the answer to my question asks the influences from WWI. Examining the given answer, the available information about WWII was
And while World War I was "his war"' so to speak, and had a far more personal impact on his thinking, he wrote Lord of the Rings during the dark days of World War II. His son fought in the war, and it would have been impossible for any Brit living at the time to avoid being seriously affected by the conflict, especially with German bombers flying overhead. So he clearly inserted elements of his own wartime service, and the general experience of WWII, into his writing.
National Geographic - INFLUENCES ON THE LORD OF THE RINGS World War I and World War II http://www.nationalgeographic.com/ngbeyond/rings/influences.html
The given link only states that
"An author cannot of course remain wholly unaffected by his experience," Tolkien acknowledged, but he strongly denied that his story was an allegory for World War I or II.*"
As a result, the linked answer carries traces of information which can be incorporated to an answer to my question without proper sourcing.
Moreover, without answering this question, two helpful users offered extra information that was not presented in the linked answer in comments. @ibid suggested me to look at the actual foreword, and @wcullen suggested me this page. Although the second link is definitely not canon, actual foreword is. Again, the foreword is used in the linked answer, however it was quoted once at an unrelated excerpt.
My first question is, if you were to ask the influences of WWII on LotR before the question on influences of WWI on LotR, would you be satisfied with this content?
Before asking this question, I went through questions asked in the last three months of meta. A good deal of questions in the meta are about questions that were marked as duplicate. For some questions, there is obviously not a consensus whether it is duplicate or not.
The current duplicate policy suggests the marking of different questions with the same answer as duplicate. This interpretation is definitely subjective and requires intense workload of the close-voters. If the close-voter do not examine the dupe-target in detail, they may erroneously vote close.
Furthermore, if an event A has three implicit and not obvious causes X, Y, Z, questions asking "What did X lead to?" and "What did Y lead to?" should be marked as duplicate. Similarly, if an event B leads to three implicit and not obvious results P, Q, R, "Why did P happen?" and "Why did Q happen?" are duplicate as well. This marking process prevents users who might wish to offer detailed insight on the other questions from doing so.
I have been here active for some time here. My questions has been marked duplicate, off-topic and primarily opinion based before, and they kind of were. However, I did not notice the extent of duplicate rule simply because it was not enforced. Some question that might have been marked duplicate are:
For the sake of my time, I stop searching for possible duplicates. However, the subjectivity of duplication rules sometimes work against the community and prevent better and/or more related answers to the duplicates due to sharing a portion of the answer.
So, why do we keep a system that we know is subjective and open to errors? Why should having questions of similar but definitely different nature be avoided simply because they have similar answers?
EDIT: Checking the meta SE, we can see that
There's only one problem with your feature request: answers don't make questions duplicates. Questions are duplicates only when the questions themselves are duplicates. In other words, you can't close a question as a duplicate of another question just because "you can find your answer over here."
So, claiming a question is duplicate because of an extended answer given to a related but different question does not make it duplicate. This practice is against the general SE principles.